QUIZ COMPTIA CS0-003 - FIRST-GRADE TEST COMPTIA CYBERSECURITY ANALYST (CYSA+) CERTIFICATION EXAM QUESTIONS

Quiz CompTIA CS0-003 - First-grade Test CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Questions

Quiz CompTIA CS0-003 - First-grade Test CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Questions

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Earning the CompTIA CySA+ certification demonstrates to employers that an individual has the knowledge and skills required to analyze and respond to security threats in a fast-paced and constantly evolving cybersecurity landscape. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification is recognized globally and can help individuals stand out in a competitive job market. In addition, the certification is a prerequisite for several advanced cybersecurity certifications, such as the CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) and the copyright Security Professional (copyright) certifications.

CompTIA CS0-003 Exam is designed for IT professionals who have at least three to four years of experience in the field of cybersecurity. CS0-003 exam covers a wide range of topics, including threat and vulnerability management, network security, incident response, and compliance and governance. It is a performance-based exam that tests the candidate's ability to apply their knowledge and skills in real-world scenarios.

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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q391-Q396):

NEW QUESTION # 391
A security audit for unsecured network services was conducted, and the following output was generated:

Which of the following services should the security team investigate further? (Select two).

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3
  • E. 4
  • F. 5

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
The output shows the results of a port scan, which is a technique used to identify open ports and services running on a network host. Port scanning can be used by attackers to discover potential vulnerabilities and exploit them, or by defenders to assess the security posture and configuration of their network devices.
The output lists six ports that are open on the target host, along with the service name and version associated with each port. The service name indicates the type of application or protocol that is using the port, while the version indicates the specific release or update of the service. The service name and version can provide useful information for both attackers and defenders, as they can reveal the capabilities, features, and weaknesses of the service. Among the six ports listed, two are particularly risky and should be investigated further by the security team: port 23 and port 636.
Port 23 is used by Telnet, which is an old and insecure protocol for remote login and command execution. Telnet does not encrypt any data transmitted over the network, including usernames and passwords, which makes it vulnerable to eavesdropping, interception, and modification by attackers. Telnet also has many known vulnerabilities that can allow attackers to gain unauthorized access, execute arbitrary commands, or cause denial-of-service attacks on the target host Port 636 is used by LDAP over SSL/TLS (LDAPS), which is a protocol for accessing and modifying directory services over a secure connection. LDAPS encrypts the data exchanged between the client and the server using SSL/TLS certificates, which provide authentication, confidentiality, and integrity. However, LDAPS can also be vulnerable to attacks if the certificates are not properly configured, verified, or updated. For example, attackers can use self-signed or expired certificates to perform man-in-the-middle attacks, spoofing attacks, or certificate revocation attacks on LDAPS connections. Therefore, the security team should investigate further why port 23 and port 636 are open on the target host, and what services are running on them.
The security team should also consider disabling or replacing these services with more secure alternatives, such as SSH for port 23 and StartTLS for port 6362.


NEW QUESTION # 392
A security analyst is working on a server patch management policy that will allow the infrastructure team to be informed more quickly about new patches. Which of the following would most likely be required by the infrastructure team so that vulnerabilities can be remediated quickly? (Choose two.)

  • A. npm identifier
  • B. POC availabilty
  • C. Hostname
  • D. CVE details
  • E. IoCs
  • F. Missing KPI

Answer: D,E

Explanation:
CVE details and IoCs are information that would most likely be required by the infrastructure team so that vulnerabilities can be remediated quickly. CVE details provide the description, severity, impact, and solution of the vulnerabilities that affect the servers. IoCs are indicators of compromise that help identify and respond to potential threats or attacks on the servers.


NEW QUESTION # 393
Which of the following best describes the actions taken by an organization after the resolution of an incident that addresses issues and reflects on the growth opportunities for future incidents?

  • A. Lessons learned
  • B. Root cause analysis
  • C. Regulatory compliance
  • D. Scrum review

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 394
Which of the following documents sets requirements and metrics for a third-party response during an event?

  • A. DRP
  • B. BIA
  • C. SLA
  • D. MOU

Answer: C

Explanation:
Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:A Service Level Agreement (SLA) defines the expectations, requirements, and metrics for third-party services, including response times and responsibilities during an event. Here's an overview of each option:
* A. BIA (Business Impact Analysis)
* Explanation: BIA is used to assess potential impacts of disruptions to business operations, but it does not specify third-party response requirements.
* B. DRP (Disaster Recovery Plan)
* Explanation: DRP provides recovery procedures for internal systems and services but does not directly establish third-party obligations.
* C. SLA (Service Level Agreement)
* Explanation: SLAs set clear expectations for third-party services, including response times, performance metrics, and specific requirements during incidents. SLAs ensure accountability for external providers during critical events.
* D. MOU (Memorandum of Understanding)
* Explanation: An MOU defines general terms and intentions between parties but lacks the specific performance metrics required in an SLA.


NEW QUESTION # 395
A company has the following security requirements:
. No public IPs
All data secured at rest
. No insecure ports/protocols
After a cloud scan is completed, a security analyst receives reports that several misconfigurations are putting the company at risk. Given the following cloud scanner output:

Which of the following should the analyst recommend be updated first to meet the security requirements and reduce risks?

  • A. VM_DEV_DB
  • B. VM_PRD_Web01
  • C. VM_PRD_DB
  • D. VM_DEV_Web02

Answer: B

Explanation:
This VM has a public IP and an open port 80, which violates the company's security requirements of no public IPs and no insecure ports/protocols. It also exposes the VM to potential attacks from the internet. This VM should be updated first to use a private IP and close the port 80, or use a secure protocol such as HTTPS.
References[CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition], Chapter 2: Cloud and Hybrid Environments, page 67.[What is a Public IP Address?][What is Port 80?]


NEW QUESTION # 396
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